Anaesthesia Comprehensive Quiz
371 questions
July 26, 2025
1.
The following cause raised intracranial pressure:
2.
Which of the following is the recommended pairing for rapid onset reversal of non-depolarizing NMBA?
3.
A 35-year-old woman with Von Willebrand Disease is experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding. Her fibrinogen level is 80 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate transfusion therapy?
4.
In a patient with intraoperative hypotension due to hypovolemia, what is the most appropriate initial treatment?
5.
Which of the following describes a correct approach to treating refractory PONV in a patient who has already received ondansetron and dexamethasone intraoperatively?
6.
Compared with intracellular fluid, the extracellular fluid contains a greater concentration of:
7.
A 45-year-old female is undergoing elective surgery for a cholecystectomy. During the procedure, the anesthesiologist notices that the patient’s blood pressure is dropping, and there is decreased urine output. The patient is given a bolus of 0.9% Saline but shows no improvement in hemodynamics. The anesthesiologist decides to perform a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE). What is the most likely reason for performing TEE in this scenario?
8.
The maximum dose of intralipid 20% in the management of LAST is:
9.
Which of the following conditions would likely cause a falsely elevated SpO2 reading?
10.
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine without epinephrine?
11.
Which of the following best explains the occurrence of hypothermia during massive transfusion?
12.
At high altitudes, the anesthetic effect of inhaled agents is most reduced due to which of the following factors?
13.
Which of the following correctly differentiates between "continual" and "continuous" monitoring?
14.
A 55-year-old female undergoing liver transplant surgery has received 15 units of packed red blood cells over the past 24 hours. She now presents with hypocalcemia and muscle spasms. What is the most likely cause?
15.
A 70-year-old patient presents with severe anemia (Hb 6 g/dL) and a history of IgA deficiency with anaphylaxis. What blood product should be administered?
16.
Which Mallampati class is associated with the highest risk of difficult intubation?
17.
Which of the following is most critical in maintaining oxygenation in a patient with a difficult airway?
18.
A 25-year-old woman undergoing elective surgery is recovering in the PACU. The nurse observes that her temperature is 35.5°C, and she is shivering. What is the best approach to manage this patient’s hypothermia?
19.
Which IV fluid is considered a balanced solution?
20.
Which of the following IV anesthetics is most suitable for rapid induction in a trauma patient with hypovolemic shock?
21.
Which of the following local anesthetics is metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase?
22.
A 60-year-old male is undergoing surgery for a large abdominal mass. The surgeon requests deep muscle relaxation. Which IV anesthetic is most likely to provide adequate relaxation while maintaining hemodynamic stability?
23.
A patient with a recent organ transplant develops signs of graft-versus-host disease after a blood transfusion. Which blood product modification could have prevented this?
24.
A 60-year-old male with a history of COPD is undergoing elective surgery. The anesthesiologist chooses an inhaled anesthetic that provides potent bronchodilation and has minimal cardiovascular effects. Which agent was most likely chosen, and why?
25.
Lidocaine can be given as an anti-arrhythmic during a LAST crisis:
26.
In fluid resuscitation, which of the following is a sign of adequate resuscitation?
27.
Difficult intubation should be anticipated in:
28.
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?
29.
Vasopressors that can be used during LAST resuscitation include (all correct options must be selected):
30.
What rare blood phenotype lacks A, B, and H antigens and has anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H antibodies?
31.
A 40-year-old male is admitted with confusion, oliguria, and cold extremities following multiple episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. His blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg. What is the most likely cause of his shock?
32.
During capnography, which phase represents the alveolar plateau?
33.
A patient undergoing elective surgery develops intraoperative hypertension. The anaesthesia provider notes that the patient’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increasing the depth of anaesthesia. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
34.
Which IV anesthetic would be most appropriate for induction in a patient with a traumatic brain injury and raised intracranial pressure?
35.
Which standard is described by the ASA ( American Society of Anesthesiologists) for basic anesthetic monitoring regarding the presence of qualified anesthesia personnel?
36.
What is the main reason for the use of lactate in Ringer’s Lactate solution?
37.
Which of the following IV fluids is isotonic?
38.
Which type of EKG monitoring system is most sensitive for detecting ischemia?
39.
A patient with tachycardia in the PACU should primarily be assessed for:
40.
Which of the following conditions contraindicates the use of succinylcholine due to the risk of hyperkalemia?
41.
In urgent warfarin reversal for a patient requiring surgery, what combination is used when the INR is between 1.9 and 5?
42.
Which property would most likely lead to a slower induction time?
43.
Which protein is primarily responsible for binding local anaesthetics and affecting their duration of action?
44.
A 28-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain following a motor vehicle accident. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and his heart rate is 120 bpm. He has cold, clammy skin and decreased urine output. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
45.
Which IV anesthetic is most appropriate for induction in a patient with a history of severe cardiovascular disease?
46.
Fluid resuscitation during major abdominal surgery with which of the following agents is associated with the best survival data?
47.
Which of the following conditions is most associated with an increased risk of atlanto-axial subluxation during intubation?
48.
Which of the following correctly differentiates between "continual" and "continuous" monitoring?
49.
In a patient undergoing laparoscopic bariatric surgery, which of the following is an effective strategy to reduce the risk of PONV?
50.
Which IV anesthetic agent is most commonly associated with emergence phenomena, such as hallucinations and nightmares?
51.
Which IV anesthetic agent is most commonly associated with emergence phenomena, such as hallucinations and nightmares?
52.
Which of the following conditions would likely cause a falsely elevated SpO2 reading?
54.
During a diagnostic laparoscopy, an intubated and anesthetized patient is placed in Trendelenburg. Over the next 20 minutes, SpO2 decreases from 100% to 95%, and ETCO2 increases from 35 to 40 without changes in ventilator settings. The most likely reason is:
55.
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with a difficult intubation?
56.
Which component in CPDA prevents clot formation by binding to calcium?
57.
During surgery, a patient with a known history of thyroid disorders presents with wide pulse pressure and elevated blood pressure. What is the most likely underlying condition causing these symptoms?
58.
During surgery, a patient receives rocuronium and later develops difficulty breathing upon extubation. Which of the following is the most appropriate reversal agent to administer?
59.
Which IV anesthetic agent is known to cause adrenal suppression by inhibiting 11-β hydroxylase?
60.
The maximum dose of plain lidocaine is
61.
Which NMBA undergoes no clinically significant metabolism and is cleared by the liver via bile excretion?
62.
What should be done if a post-operative patient exhibits signs of hypovolemia in the PACU?
63.
A 45-year-old male with a history of IgA deficiency is undergoing surgery and requires a transfusion. Within minutes of starting the transfusion, he develops respiratory distress, hypotension, and a rash. What is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate initial management?
64.
Lidocaine can be given as an anti-arrhythmic during a LAST crisis:
65.
A 35-year-old male undergoing surgery experiences a drop in blood pressure after induction with an IV anesthetic. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible?
66.
A 40-year-old male is admitted with confusion, oliguria, and cold extremities following multiple episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. His blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg. What is the most likely cause of his shock?
67.
What is the primary reason lactated Ringer’s solution is not compatible with pRBC transfusion?
68.
Propofol is the first-line choice to control seizures during LAST.
69.
A 45-year-old patient undergoing abdominal surgery is found to have a blood pressure of 85/50 mmHg. The patient has a history of significant blood loss and the surgical team suspects hypovolemia. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
70.
Which NMBA is metabolized through Hofmann elimination and non-specific ester hydrolysis?
71.
Which of the following is a primary cause of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema in transfusion reactions?
72.
In a normal person, heart rate is increased by:
73.
What is the recommended management for a patient with a difficult airway who cannot be intubated or ventilated?
74.
Which IV anesthetic would be most appropriate for induction in a patient with a traumatic brain injury and raised intracranial pressure?
75.
During a dental procedure, a patient receives an injection of lidocaine with epinephrine. The patient then complains of a metallic taste and numbness around the tongue, followed by confusion and drowsiness. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
76.
In cyanide toxicity, what is the expected arterial blood gas (ABG) finding?
77.
Which of the following increases the shelf life of RBCs by serving as a precursor to ATP synthesis?
78.
Which component in CPDA prevents clot formation by binding to calcium?
79.
Which arterial site is considered the "gold standard" for core temperature monitoring?
80.
What is the primary reason for avoiding nitrous oxide in patients with pneumothorax?
81.
In the PACU, a GCS score of 10 indicates:
82.
Which NMBA has an active metabolite that is almost as potent as its parent drug, accumulates in renal failure, and causes prolonged blockade?
83.
The total maximum dose of intralipid in the management of LAST can be reached in less than 20 minutes:
84.
Which of the following drugs has the shortest duration of action when used as an infusion for managing intraoperative hypotension?
85.
What is the standard definition of massive transfusion?
86.
The best method to monitor the effectiveness of oxygenation in a post-operative patient is:
87.
Which of the following findings is most likely in a patient with cardiogenic shock?
88.
The best method to monitor the effectiveness of oxygenation in a post-operative patient is:
89.
Which characteristic of local anesthetics is most associated with potency?
90.
Which type of shock is characterized by low systemic vascular resistance and is often associated with warm extremities?
91.
Which of the following clinical signs would be most consistent with a diagnosis of tension pneumothorax causing obstructive shock?
92.
What rare blood phenotype lacks A, B, and H antigens and has anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H antibodies?
93.
Which of the following routes of administration is associated with the highest risk of systemic absorption and potential toxicity?
94.
A patient with cirrhosis and spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is being treated with albumin. What is the main reason for this treatment?
95.
A 45-year-old woman is undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During the procedure, her blood pressure suddenly drops, and her pulse rate decreases. She was administered a volatile anesthetic with the following properties: blood: gas partition coefficient of 2.54 and MAC of 0.75%. Which anesthetic was most likely used, and what is the likely cause of her hemodynamic instability?
96.
A 60-year-old male with ESRD is scheduled for a procedure requiring general anesthesia. Which NMBA would be most appropriate considering his renal function?
97.
A 40-year-old obese female presents for a cholecystectomy. She has a history of obstructive sleep apnea and her Mallampati classification is noted to be Class IV. The anesthetist is concerned about the potential for a difficult airway. What is the most appropriate initial approach to airway management for this patient?
98.
At high altitudes, the anesthetic effect of inhaled agents is most reduced due to which of the following factors?
99.
A patient with a history of malignant hyperthermia is scheduled for surgery. Which inhaled anesthetic is most appropriate for this patient?
100.
Fluid resuscitation during major abdominal surgery with which of the following agents is associated with the best survival data?