Obstetric and Gynaecology Comprehensive Quiz
Test your knowledge on Obstetrics and Gynaecology by answering the questions provided in this quiz.
1.
Uterine artery embolization is useful in the following conditions except:
2.
Which of the following are used in the management of endometriosis?
3.
A 40 year old woman presents to you family planning clinic complaining that she can no longer feel the threads of an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) which was placed in her uterus 4 years ago. She received normal menses one week ago. Which of the following are the most appropriate modalities for detecting a lost IUCD?
4.
After the cervix is fully dilated, what is the most important force in fetal expulsion?
5.
A 30-year-old Para 0 + 1 is referred for a Hysterosalpingogram to investigate the cause of her secondary infertility. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to hysterosalpingography?
6.
A 46-year-old, non-pregnant, morbidly obese woman presents with irregular periods over the past 6 months. Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management in this setting?
7.
A 35-year-old lady presents with history of irregular menses. On examination she has a firm suprapubic mass corresponding to 20 weeks of pregnancy. Which is the most appropriate imaging modality to determine if she has uterine fibroids?
8.
A 24-year old woman has marked increase in the size of her uterus between 26-30 weeks gestation. Obstetric ultrasound shows a marked increase in the amount of amniotic fluid. The fetus is normal for gestational age. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
9.
Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with vacuum delivery?
10.
The following are appropriate imaging modalities for ovaries:
11.
The first evidence of pubertal development in the female is:
12.
Which one of the following abnormalities is NOT caused by fetal alcohol syndrome?
13.
The most accurate ultrasound measurement to determine gestation age in the first trimester is?
14.
A woman presents for routine health checkup. The following is visualized during speculum examination. What is the most appropriate next step?
15.
The first evidence of puberty in a female child is:
16.
A 38-year-old woman with stage IIB cervical cancer has a PET scan that shows positive pelvic nodes. She undergoes laparoscopic extraperitoneal para-aortic lymph node dissection. Histology reveals that para-aortic nodes are positive for tumor. What is the most appropriate treatment?
17.
What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
18.
Which of the following is not a postnatal adaptation of the fetal circulation?
19.
What is the initial step that leads to placenta separation following delivery of the infant?
20.
Lochia is made up of all the following except:
21.
Which of the following is NOT true concerning the diagnosis of gestational diabetes?
22.
Which one of the following is not included in the antenatal care profile in Kenya?
23.
A patient presents to the gynaecology clinic with malodorous discharge. A wet prep reveals motile organisms with multiple flagella. What is the treatment of choice?
24.
Pre-eclampsia is more common in:
25.
A 36-year-old female, post-caesarean section, in the ward with unilateral lower limb swelling for 2 weeks, now presents with sudden onset pain and tachycardia. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
26.
A 48 year old female patient presents with dysfunctional uterine bleeding. On speculum examination there is a nodular cervical mass. A Pap smear done is positive for Ca cervix. Which is the most appropriate next imaging test?
27.
During early pregnancy, colostrum production begins at:
28.
Which is the most common complication of a hysterosalpingogram?
29.
A 23-year-old primigravida presents for induction of labor at 41 weeks gestation. Her cervix is unfavorable with a Bishop score of 4. You proceed with cervical ripening using the agent shown below. Which class of medication does the agent belong to?
30.
Congenital anomalies are best detected, demonstrated and assessed at what gestational period?
31.
Which histologic subtype of cervical cancer is associated with Peutz-jegers syndrome:
32.
Which of the following is the most commonly used radiation sensitizer for the treatment of cervical cancer?
33.
Which of the following pathogens causes up to 50% of all chorioamnionitis?
34.
The following are common oestrogen-related side effects to HRT EXCEPT:
35.
Which of the following is a more common complication of vacuum deliveries as compared to forceps assisted deliveries?
36.
Which of the following is not a metabolic change during pregnancy?
37.
Which HPV subtype is most strongly associated with adenocarcinoma of the cervix
38.
Which is not a risk factor for fetal macrosomia?
39.
Lochia is made of the following EXCEPT?
40.
Which of the following pathological changes DOES NOT occur in placental malaria?
41.
What does the HPV oncogene E6 bind and inactivate to cause immortalization of cervical cells?
42.
Congenital malformation can be attributed to maternal infection with:
43.
Of the four phases of labor, phase 2 is characterized by which of the following?
44.
The following is most significant in identifying the probability of the presence of chromosomal anomalies in obstetric ultrasound assessment of the fetus at 11-13 weeks:
45.
Which one of the following illustrates Naegele’s rule for calculating the estimated date of delivery?
46.
The following require the use of a transvaginal probe to make an accurate diagnosis except?
47.
Which of the following signs or symptoms is NOT part of the classic triad that suggests pelvic sidewall disease?
48.
A 30-year-old primigravida presents at 39 weeks gestation. She wants to deliver but does not want to be induced. You suggest membrane stripping and inform her that this will lead to a rise in which of the following prostaglandins?
49.
The softening of the uterine isthmus resulting in compressibility on bimanual examination in early pregnancy is sometimes called?
50.
Among the following, which is the most significant prognostic factor for early-stage cervical cancer?
51.
What is the primary purpose of antenatal corticosteroids given to pregnant women at risk of preterm delivery?
52.
Which one of the following factors is associated with reduced risk of developing uterine fibroids?
53.
Confirmation of ruptured ectopic pregnancy in the absence of ultrasound can be achieved by?
54.
What is the most appropriate treatment for a 30 year old woman who has stage IAI adenocarcinoma of the cervix, negative lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI) and strongly desires future fertility?
55.
In the evaluation of a patient with secondary infertility on hysterosalpingogram, the following are diagnostic findings except?
56.
Which of the following is a requirement before performing a hysterosalpingogram?
57.
Which one of the following tests is not used for staging cervical cancer per FIGO?
58.
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) has a constellation of symptoms. Which of the following would you NOT expect?
59.
What is the most appropriate surgical option for a woman with stage IA SCC of the cervix and has completed childbearing?
60.
Which one of the following is not a condition in which pregnancy is absolutely contraindicated for fear of increased maternal mortality?
61.
Which of the following normal changes in pregnancy worsens the clinical course of TB?
62.
Which of the following is used in management of hypertensive crisis in pregnancy?
63.
Which of the following is an injectable progestin used for contraception?
64.
Which is not a risk factor for gestational diabetes?
65.
In a first trimester of pregnancy, which is a normal finding on a transvaginal ultrasound?
66.
Imaging findings in chronic pelvic inflammatory disease include the following except:
67.
Which one of the following is used to refer to the relation between the fetal and maternal vertical axis?
68.
Which is not an indication for amniocentesis?
69.
What is the purpose of the Non-Stress Test (NST) during pregnancy?
70.
What is the role of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) during early pregnancy?
71.
The following are fetal risk factors for intrauterine growth restriction EXCEPT?
72.
What is the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in women of reproductive age?
73.
A 34-year-old woman is scheduled to return for her post-partum visit 6 weeks after delivery. Given that birth control will be discussed during that visit, what is the optimum timing of the visit?
74.
Transvaginal ultrasound is particularly useful in the following conditions except:
75.
Which of the following is an important patient preparation step before a transvaginal pelvic ultrasound that determines technical quality of the imaging?
76.
The following are evaluated when performing a fetal biophysical profile:
77.
Which one of the following types of fibroids is unlikely to cause infertility?
78.
A 32 year old multigravida presents with vaginal spotting at 33 weeks gestation. Physical exam reveals a fungating mass and biopsy confirms invasive SCC of cervix. She undergoes Caesarean section immediately followed by radical hysterectomy. The specimen is shown below. Which statement is false?
79.
A 33 year old female presents with right lumbar pain radiating to the groin. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial imaging modality to request?
80.
False statement regarding hysterosalpingography:
81.
Which of the following is not part of Amsel criteria for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis?
82.
The following are associated with molar pregnancy EXCEPT:
