Haematology Comprehensive Quiz
Test your knowledge on Haematology by answering the questions provided in this quiz.
1.
Which of the following is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL):
2.
Which of the following is the storage temperature for Packed Red Blood Cells (pRBCs)?
3.
A 35-year-old female presents with petechiae and purpura 10 days after receiving a blood transfusion. She has a history of multiple transfusions and a recent pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the treatment?
4.
Which one of the following will not result in microcytic hypochromic anemia?
5.
Which of the following hematologic disorders is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22) translocation)?
6.
Polycythemia vera is a disorder that results in:
7.
Which of the following is CD15 and CD30 negative variant Hodgkin Lymphoma?
8.
What rare blood phenotype lacks A, B, and H antigens and has anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H antibodies?
9.
Which one of the following statements is false?
10.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is markedly elevated in the following except:
11.
Romanowsky stains are used universally for routine staining of blood films. Which of the following is not among them?
12.
Which of the following is the gene involved in 95% of cases of polycythemia vera?
13.
Ineffective erythropoiesis is characteristic of which one:
14.
The administration of fresh frozen plasma in patients on Warfarin is MOST appropriate in which of the following scenarios?
15.
A microscopic picture is shown below. What is the diagnosis?
16.
A 32-year-old female with a history of multiple transfusions presents 7 days after receiving a transfusion with jaundice and low hemoglobin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
17.
Which of the following is a non-fibrin specific fibrinolytic agent?
18.
A clinical feature commonly seen in Von Willebrand disease is?
19.
In urgent warfarin reversal for a patient requiring surgery, what combination is used when the INR is between 1.9 and 5?
20.
CD20 is a phosphoprotein generally expressed in?
22.
Which of the following is the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia in adults?
23.
Which of the following is true about polycythemia vera?
24.
A patient with a recent organ transplant develops signs of graft-versus-host disease after a blood transfusion. Which blood product modification could have prevented this?
25.
A 70-year-old patient presents with severe anemia (Hb 6 g/dL) and a history of IgA deficiency with anaphylaxis. What blood product should be administered?
26.
Red blood cells are prepared from whole blood by removing the plasma. Shelf life of whole blood is:
27.
Warfarin mediates anticoagulation by:
28.
A 37 yo male presents with severe fatigue, frequent nose bleeds, and gingival masses. The abnormal cells seen in the blood smear show tissue paper nuclei. What is the diagnosis?
29.
What is the most appropriate indication for cryoprecipitate transfusion?
30.
Which of the following viruses is the common cause of sickle cell aplastic crisis?
31.
What is the primary reason lactated Ringer’s solution is not compatible with pRBC transfusion?
32.
A 55-year-old female undergoing liver transplant surgery has received 15 units of packed red blood cells over the past 24 hours. She now presents with hypocalcemia and muscle spasms. What is the most likely cause?
33.
Which of the following is not true regarding the Reed-Sternberg cell?
34.
Which of the following is the best initial step in the management of an Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction?
36.
Which of the following is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?
37.
A 30 year old presents with abdominal distention and discomfort. on physical examination he is found to have massive splenomegaly extending into the iliac fossa. which of the following is the patient LEAST likely to be suffering from?
39.
A 55-year-old male with a history of myocardial infarction is scheduled for elective surgery. His hemoglobin is 8.2 g/dL. What is the most appropriate transfusion strategy?
40.
Select the false statement regarding factors affecting rate of iron absorption:
41.
Which of the following increases the shelf life of RBCs by serving as a precursor to ATP synthesis?
42.
On what chromosome is the sickle cell gene point mutation?
43.
Deficiency of which of the following causes hereditary spherocytosis?
44.
Which one of the following stains may be used to characterise bone marrow fibrosis?
45.
A 50-year-old man is undergoing an extensive surgical procedure with an estimated blood loss of 1500 mL. The surgeon anticipates further blood loss during the procedure. The patient has a history of cancer and the surgical site is not infected. What intraoperative blood management technique should be used to manage this patient’s blood loss effectively?
46.
Which of the following is an established risk factor for Acute Myeloid Leukemia?
47.
Which of the following is elevated in a polycythemia vera?
48.
The specimen for coagulation testing is?
49.
Which of the following conditions is NOT a common indication for massive transfusion?
50.
Deficiency of factor XI leads to the following condition:
51.
Which infectious agent is NOT typically screened for in donated blood?
52.
Pappenheimer bodies are composed of?
53.
Which of the following is a primary cause of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema in transfusion reactions?
54.
Massive blood transfusion may lead to:
55.
Molecular abnormalities associated with polycythemia vera:
56.
Starry sky appearance is seen in:
57.
What is the standard definition of massive transfusion?
58.
A 60-year-old patient undergoing cardiac surgery has an INR of 2.8 and begins to bleed excessively. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
60.
Which component in CPDA prevents clot formation by binding to calcium?
61.
Which anticoagulant in RBC storage is associated with a 42-day shelf life?
62.
PML-RARA fusion gene is associated with:
63.
Which of the following regarding hemostasis is false?
64.
What is the primary mechanism behind delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
65.
Which of the following is a common complication of massive transfusion due to citrate toxicity?
66.
A 70-year-old male patient presents with bone pain in the back and renal failure. Bone marrow aspirate shows abnormal blasts. Which finding is expected in the RBCs of the peripheral smear?
67.
Which of the following is not a vitamin K dependent factor:
68.
A 30-year-old male undergoes exploratory laparotomy. He receives 4 RBC, 2 FFP and 2 hours after the surgery he becomes hypoxemic and hypotensive. A CXR shows bilateral pulmonary edema and PCWP is 8 mmHg (normal is 6 - 12). Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
69.
Which transfusion reaction is most commonly associated with IgA deficiency?
70.
A 60-year-old male with a history of heart failure is receiving a blood transfusion. A few hours after the transfusion, he develops dyspnea, elevated jugular venous pressure, and crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate intervention?
71.
The most common subtype of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma in African children is?
72.
Which of the following is the typical finding in the peripheral blood smear of a patient with multiple myeloma?
73.
Which of the following is correct about the presentation of polycythemia vera?
74.
Which of the following coagulation factors is not involved in the intrinsic pathway?
75.
Which of the following is an indicator of good prognosis for pre-B childhood ALL?
76.
A 35-year-old woman with Von Willebrand Disease is experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding. Her fibrinogen level is 80 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate transfusion therapy?
77.
A 45-year-old male with a history of IgA deficiency is undergoing surgery and requires a transfusion. Within minutes of starting the transfusion, he develops respiratory distress, hypotension, and a rash. What is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate initial management?
78.
Which of the following best explains the occurrence of hypothermia during massive transfusion?
79.
Starry sky appearance is seen in:
80.
A 25-year-old male with no previous transfusions presents with fever, chills, and hypotension shortly after receiving a blood transfusion. What is the most likely cause?
81.
Which antibody is commonly elevated in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?
82.
Which of the following is not a component of dense granules of platelets?
83.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by a deficiency of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)?
84.
Which of the following cells is diagnostic for Hodgkin Lymphoma:
85.
Which of the following is a long term complication of therapy with cytotoxic drugs:
86.
Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing a patient with transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)?
87.
Causes of the anticoagulant effect of a massive blood transfusion includes:
89.
Which of the following is NOT true about Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
